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Main article: Cisco

Updated Cisco certification 300-160 DCID exam questions pdf in July

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Which option configured on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series data center switches ensures the confidentiality of server data beginning at the ingress switch port?
A. Host vPC+
B. Linksec
C. MACsec
D. LACP
E. IPsec
Answer: C

What allows for STP to be disabled yet support a loop-free topology even on link or switch failure?
A. LACP
B. OTV
C. vPC
D. vPC+
E. FabricPath
Answer: E

The ANSI restriction that only 239 Fibre Channel domains are allowed per SAN fabric creates challenges for the designer working on a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric network.
Which two approaches can the designer utilize to restrict the number of Fibre Channel domains below 239? (Choose two.)
A. Daisy chain up to 100 core Fibre Channel switches, leaving 139 domains for the network edge.
B. Assign a domain ID for each blade switch and top-of-rack access layer switch.
C. Use NPV to cause a fabric or blade switch to appear as a host to the core Fibre Channel switch.
D. Migrate to FCoE to eliminate the need for Fibre Channel domains.
E. Utilize VSANs to allow scaling well beyond 239 domain IDs.
Answer: C, E

Which two devices are recommended for an MoR design that includes Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
B. Cisco Nexus 4004
C. Cisco Nexus 3064
D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
E. Cisco Nexus 2248T
Answer: A, D

Which performance characteristic is least likely to require being addressed in the data center solution requirements?
A. server virtualization
B. desktop virtualization
C. distributed computing
D. private cloud
E. power efficiency
Answer: E

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louie jul 12, 06:55
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Cisco Specialist 500-710 pdf dump | Passtcert

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An administrator notices that when alias information is changed manually on an endpoint that is registered to an Expressway, the changes are successful, but then revert back to their original state the following day. Which cause is the most likely?
A.The changes are not being saved properly on the endpoint.
B.A template is being persistently pushed to the endpoint from TMS.
C.A template is being pushed persistently to the endpoint from the Expressway.
D.The alias information of the endpoint is duplicated on another endpoint.
Answer: B

Which option do Enterprise settings on Cisco Spark determine?
A.where user information comes from
B.how connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment
C. bot integration
D.API integration
Answer: A

Which two statements about the relationship between the Expressway series and the Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose two.)
A.The Expressway solution can be peered with a Cisco Unified Communications Manager to allow for greater capabilities.
B.The Expressway series can never operate as a standalone call-control solution.
C.The Expressway series requires the peering with a Cisco Unified Communications Manager to act as a call-control device.
D.The Expressway series may operate as a standalone call-control solution.
E.The Expressway series only supports SIP-based communications.
Answer: AB

Which three options are for deploying Cisco Collaboration Meeting Rooms products? (Choose three.)
A.CMR Premises
B.CMR Live
CCMR Hybrid
D.CMR Cloud
E.CMR Virtual
F.CMR Security
Answer: ACD

Cisco Meeting Server can be deployed using three different deployment models, which option lists deployment models that are the best solution to accommodate fail-over?
A.single combined server deployment
B.scaled and resilient server deployment
C.scaled and combined server deployment
D.single split server deployment
Answer: B


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louie jul 4, 05:51
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2018 Passed with Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-150 DCICN exam dumps

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What layer of the OSI Model provides the logical addressing that routers use for path determination?
A. transport
B. network
C. application
D. presentation
Answer: B

What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000 chassis for N 1 redundancy using Ml-Series line card?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: A

Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Switch? (Choose two)
A. Virtual Port Channel
B. Layer 3
C. Virtual Device Contexts
D. iSCSI
E. Fibre Channel
Answer: BC

Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)
A. feature vtp
B. vtp client mode
C. vtp VLAN
D. vtp version
E. vtp static
Answer: A,D

Which type of media uses electromagnetic waves that are generated by lasers, is often used in campus backbones, and is capable of transmitting to a distance of 60 kilometers?
A. shielded twisted-pair cable
B. coaxial cable
C. multimode fiber-optic cable
D. single-mode fiber-optic cable
Answer: C

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Related exam:

200-155 exam dumps


louie apr 12, 08:42
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[2018 Passtcert Update] Cisco 300-135 TSHOOT study guide

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Share some CCNP 300-135 exam questions and answers below.
The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. BGP
B. NAT
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security
Answer: C


What is the MTU¡¯s size in a GRE tunnel?
A. 1630
B. 1476
C. 1500
D. 1900
Answer: B

The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. BGP
B. NTP
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security
Answer: A


What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 configuration enter the ip nat outside command
C. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command
D. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command
Answer: C


Two routers are connected through PPP connection. After the PPP was established the admin put OSPF running above it. The OSPF formed adjacency but after soon the adjacency dropped.
What is the reason? (The cause of OSPF forming an adjacency over a GRE tunnel and dropping immediately)
A. MTU does not match
B. Area 0 need to exist for OSPF to function properly
C. Gre tunnel destination is not reachable through tunnel
D. Gre tunnel ip address must be covered by network under ¡°router ospf 1¡±
E. ospf routes contains the route to tunnel destination
Answer: C

The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. IPv4 OSPF Routing
C. IPv6 OSPF Routing
D. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability
E. IPv4 layer 3 security
Answer: D

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Related exams:

300-101 Implementing Cisco IP Routing
300-115 Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks


louie mar 22, 11:47
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Share some ENUAE 500-451 exam questions and answers below.
Which three components are part of a Unified Access solution? (Choose three.)
A. One Policy (Cisco ISE)
B. One Management (Cisco Prime)
C. One Network (wired, wireless, VPN access)
D. One Controller (Converged)
E. One Solution
F. One Security
Answer: A,B,C

Which platform supports SSO?
A. Nexus 1000V Series Switches
B. Catalyst 2960 Series Switches
C. Catalyst 3850 Series Switches
D. Catalyst 3750-X Series Switches
Answer: C

When Cisco Catalyst 3850 Switches are implemented in a stack configuration, which command is used to verify the role of each switch in the stack, and what are the two roles supported?
A. show switch stack role; active/standby
B. show switch detail; active/standby
C. show switch member; master/member
D. show stack detail; master/member
Answer: B

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Related exams:

500-551 Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions
500-701 Cisco Video Infrastructure Design


louie mar 14, 11:48
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[2018 Passtcert Update] Cisco 200-355 WIFUND certification dumps

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Share some CCNA Wireless 200-355 exam questions and answers below.
Which RRM feature allows an access point to avoid non-IEEE 802.11 interference?
A. DCA
B. TPC
C. RF groups
D. coverage hole detection
Answer: A

During the deployment of a wireless network for data and location services, an engineer is to fine-tune the location services.
What is this type of survey called?
A. passive fingerprinting
B. passive calibrating
C. active fingerprinting
D. active calibrating
Answer: A

A company has all IEEE 802.11a/802.11g devices; however, its network administrator recommends installing 802.11n access points to provide greater performance. Which feature on an 802.11n AP provides better performance to legacy devices?
A. channel aggregation
B. transmit beam-forming
C. maximal-ratio combining
D. spatial multiplexing
Answer: B

A network engineer at a retail store needs a wireless deployment that can be easily maintained and verified for PCI compliance.
What solution will meet this need with the least work?
A. Cloud
B. Autonomous
C. FlexConnect
D. Centralized
Answer: A

An engineer wants to deploy a 2504 controller as the anchor controller for a guest WLAN that resides on a 5508 controller in a different mobility group.
What configuration change must be applied to support this deployment strategy?
A. UDP 16666 and IP Protocol 97 must be enabled on the 2504 controller
B. UDP 5246 and TCP Protocol 97 must be enabled on the router
C. The 2504 controller must be added to the same mobility group as the 5508.
D. DHCP Option 43 must be added to the neighboring switchport
Answer: C

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Related exams:

200-105 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
200-125 CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)


louie mar 13, 09:43
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Share some Other Cisco Certifications 500-701 exam questions and answers below.
Where are license keys entered in TMS?
A. Diagnostics
B. Administrative Settings
C. General Settings
D. Maintenance
Answer: C

Which Cisco WebEx Products can support over 5000 attendees?
A. Cisco WebEx Training Center
B. Cisco WebEx Event Center
C. Cisco WebEx Support Center
D. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
Answer: B

Which product is a Call Control Server that supports both voice and video communication?
A. Cisco Telepresence Management Suite
B. Cisco Content Server
C. Cisco Meeting Server
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Answer: D

When writing new App in Tropo, in what format should the App Scripts be saved?
A. .js
B. .json
C. .mp4
D. .xml
Answer: B

Which conferencing solution is designed for highly scalable meetings, training and events?
A. Cisco Meeting Server
B. Cisco WebEx
C. Spark
D. TelePresence Server
Answer: B


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Related Exam:

500-551 Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions


louie mar 12, 06:44
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Share some CCNP 300-101 exam questions and answers below.
On which two types of interface is Frame Relay switching supported? (Choose two.)
A. serial interfaces
B. Ethernet interfaces
C. fiber interfaces
D. ISDN interfaces
E. auxiliary interfaces
Answer: A,D

In IPv6, SLAAC provides the ability to address a host based on a network prefix that is advertised from a local network router. How is the prefix advertised?
A. routing table
B. router advertisements
C. routing protocol
D. routing type
Answer: B

A network engineer is considering enabling load balancing with EIGRP. Which consideration should be analyzed?
A. EIGRP allows a maximum of four paths across for load balancing traffic.
B. By default, EIGRP uses a default variance of 2 for load balancing.
C. EIGRP unequal path load balancing can result in routing loops.
D. By default, EIGRP performs equal cost load balancing at least across four equal cost paths.
Answer: D

An engineer is configuring a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address on the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface. Which option also is required on the tunnel interface before it is operational?
A. tunnel destination address
B. keepalives
C. IPv6 address
D. tunnel protection
Answer: A

Which statement is true?
A. RADIUS uses TCP, and TACACS+ uses UDP.
B. RADIUS encrypts the entire body of the packet.
C. TACACS+ encrypts only the password portion of a packet.
D. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization.
Answer: D

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Related exams:

300-115 Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
300-135 Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks


louie mar 5, 06:58
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[2018 Passtcert] Cisco certification 400-201 simulation questions

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Share some CCIE 400-201 exam questions and answers below.
What ISIS TLVs are used to support MPLS traffic Engineering? (Choose three)
A. TLV 22 Extended IS neighbor
B. TLV 10 Authentication Information
C. TLV 134 Router ID
D. TLV 132 IP interface Address
E. TLV 128 IP Internal Reachability
F. TLV 135 IS Reachability
Answer: A, C, F

Which are two benefits of using segment routing over RSVP-TE for traffic engineering? (Choose two)
A. Segment routing traffic engineering tunnels always follow the low-latency path
B. ECMP-aware traffic engineering is natively supported by segment routing
C. Per-flow state is present only at the ingress node to the Segment routing-enabled network
D. Per-flow state is present at the ingress and egress node to the segment routing-enabled network
E. Per-flow state is maintained on all nodes of the segment routing-enabled network
Answer: B, C

ISP A provides L2VPN services to Company B through an MPLS network. Company B uses all available CoS values to classify and different traffic forwarding within all Company B sites.
ISP A uses the following CoS values to differentiate service classes for the VPN customer traffic
• MPLS EXP 0 for Bronze service class
• MPLS EXP 1 for Silver service class
• MPLS EXP 2 for Gold service class
• Remaining MPLS EXP values for ISP A internal use
ISP A¡¯s policy is to forward VPN customer traffic based only on their Bronze, silver and Gold service classes.
Which QoS method must ISP A implement to achieve this?
A. Short-pipe Mode
B. Russian Doll Model
C. Pipe Mode
D. Uniform Mode
E. Maximum Allocation Model
Answer: D

In IEEE 802. lad deployments, which three represent valid port modes? (Choose three)
A.NNIS-port
B.NNI
C.UNIS-port
D.NNIC-port
E.UNIC-port
F.UNIT-port
Answer: BCE

REP has been deployed in a segment. A network operations engineer notices that a segment port does not become operational. What is the root cause of this issue?
A.More than one neighbor has the same segment ID.
B.A neighbor is using a different port ID.
C.A local port is in alternate port state.
D.A neighbor port is in blocked state.
Answer: A


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louie feb 26, 06:56
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Share some CCNA Cloud 210-451 exam questions and answers below.
Which statement defines Cloud Service Models?
A. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
B. internet as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
C. infrastructure as a service, big data as a service, platform as a service
D. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, grid as a service
Answer: A

Which characteristic is an inoperative attribute of a private Cloud deployment?
A. self service and on demand
B. shared by many companies
C. highly scalable
D. metered for reporting or billing purposes
Answer: B

Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Answer: A

What are the five specific characteristics common to the Cloud environments?
A. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
B. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, tiered-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
C. on-demand usage, autonomous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
D. dynamic usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
Answer: A

Which best describes a Cloud deployment model that relies on interoperability between Cloud providers?
A. Hybrid Cloud
B. Multi-Cloud
C. InterCloud
D. Community Cloud
Answer: C

Which best describes a SaaS Cloud model?
A. infrastructure that presents the user with an operating system allowing programming language execution environment for testing database and web servers
B. infrastructure that virtualizes server functions on a hypervisor
C. infrastructure that provides elastic storage and computing resources
D. a platform that provides access to application software or database resources
Answer: D

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